Can anyone solve this?
Let f(x) be a function such that f(1)=1 for x>=1, f'(x)=1/(x2 + (f(x))2).Prove that Limx->infinityf(x) exists and is >= 1+ (Pi)/4
what does the question mean by f(1)=1 for x>=1?
Sorry, that x>=1 is for the function's derivative and not for f(1)=1.